12/19/15 - "What's Real, and What's for Sale?"


Is the experience a person has after consuming a psychedelic substance

simply the product of having consumed a drug, as is the common

understanding, or is it real? These drugs are classified as hallucinogens,

and modern psychology diagnoses the experience as a psychotic break.

But, is that accurate? A figure that has appeared in many cultures

throughout human history is the shaman, in various forms. Whenever

there is discovered a psychotropic substance in a local area, human

beings tend to use it, and the shaman seeks divination through such

substances. The experience of this type of drug is universally one of

enlightenment - a great sense of understanding comes over the user,

and they report having gained many insights previously unavailable in

ordinary states of consciousness. After coming down from such a high,

the user finds that the memories of the experience were state-dependent

-
They have general recollections upon what they experienced, but

relating precisely what they learned is impossible. Whatever they

understood about their selves and the world around them requires that

they enter an altered state of consciousness. This makes it easy for a

non-user or bigoted prohibitionist to write-off the experience as false,

defining it as "hallucination". It seems to me that altered states are as

real as ordinary states of consciousness; and, perhaps, should be taken

more seriously for their unique fragments of experience -
Lending a

glimpse into a region of the mind that is unfamiliar. The argument

remains, however, that the validity of such an experience which

dissipates at termination is real. Some people want to believe that these

experiences are real, and others do not, which influences a consensus

opinion. What is the objective truth? Are all the human beings that

experience enlightenment actually having a "psychotic break from

reality"? There are non-drug-induced states of consciousness

experienced by individuals of religious orders that exhibit the same

character as drug states, and are respected as real experiences of

enlightenment. You could say that these people who practice various

religions are having the same sort of psychotic break as users of

psychedelic drugs. Or, we might conclude that everyone's experience is

valid. If a person experiences a sense of understanding, it must have a

real source (I would postulate) - in the absence of such a source, the

experience of understanding does not occur ;)

Thought of the Day
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